galtgulch Posted January 1, 2008 Share Posted January 1, 2008 Article 1 Section 9 forbid a direct tax or capitation tax, without apportionment.The Sixteenth Amendment contradicted that prohibition.The tax code is convoluted but there might be a way to interpret the IRS code to mean that only income from foreign sources is taxable.Anyone care to see if this reasoning makes any sense?http://www.taxhonesty.com/Scroll down and watch the video about 861Let me know what you think!g Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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