I'm sure any decent parent would be worried about the physical risks associated with the sex trade, given the fact that it's illegal. One can be arrested, imprisoned by police, or beaten and raped without legal recourse. The same would be true of being Jewish and resisting the resettlement laws of 1930's Germany. So I guess by this standard, the Jews who refused to wear the Star of David on their sleeves were naive to think that their crimes were "victimless and morally neutral". Why don't we define "victimless crime" here? The popular expression doesn't imply that ones actions don't negatively impact others, only that the action by itself does not violate the rights of other individuals (does not constitute the initiation of force). Let's say a law was passed prohibiting bungee jumping. Certainly there may be victims, if a person goes bungee jumping anyway and endangers his life by not taking reasonable precautions; namely, his family and friends who would have to carry on without him. And I suppose there would then be debate over whether bungee jumping is a "victimless crime", but clearly (among libertarians at least), this is understood in relation to the use of physical force, not whether a person is "harmed". Tim