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I used to believe so, since, per Peikoff's audio lectures, it is employs hypothetical, not categorical imperative. But someone, at another forum, objected to this, saying: "you have not apprehended the concepts of Objectivism. Consequentialism is anathema. Morality is principled, not conditional to outcomes.... The utilitarianism of John Stuart Mill and Jeremy Bentham is a well known example of consequentialism. By contrast, the deontological theories of John Locke and Immanuel Kant are nonconsequentialist." I sure agree than Kant is a non-consequentialist. But Kant, also, is against hypothetical imperative. Assuming that both Peikoff and my objector render AR's view correctly, what I fail to see is why the hypothetical does not necessarily imply consequentialism. Thanks for any help.